General Discussion

If "vote rigging" is to be so narrowly defined so that it only applies to "changing votes" that have already been cast, to alter final vote totals in an election, wouldn't throwing out votes already cast in an election be "changing the final vote count," and wouldn't that fit within your narrow definition of "vote rigging"?

For example, after the Supreme Court struck down Louisiana's congressional map, Republican Governor Jeff Landry postponed voting for U.S. House primaries so state lawmakers could draw new district lines. Landry justified this, saying: "Allowing elections to proceed under an unconstitutional map would undermine the integrity of our system and violate the rights of our voters."

Landry's announcement came days before in-person early voting had begun. Absentee ballots had already been mailed, and tens of thousands of those ballots had already been cast. Still, polling sites across the state were told by Louisiana's Republican state election officials those votes already cast would not count.

This is not a conspiracy theory, or an unfounded allegation, it is happening now, and Republicans are doing it. Arbitrarily throwing out votes "changes" the final vote count in an election, as surely as stuffing a ballot box with fake paper ballots, or fucking with voting machine software to change votes after they've been cast.